Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 9

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Question 1 of 20

1. Question

Which condition is characterized by an increase in PTH, leading to cystic bone lesions (e.g., osteitis fibrosa cystica), nephrocalcinosis (renal calculi), and metastatic calcifications?

Hyperparathyroidism
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Grave disease
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Hyperthyroidism
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Hypoparathyroidism
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Addison disease
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Question 2 of 20

2. Question

The Chvostek sign (tapping the facial nerve resulting in upper lip twitching) and Trousseau sign (carpopedal spasm when inflating a blood pressure cuff) are clinical tests used to confirm suspected:

Chronic hypocalcemia
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Acute hypercalcemia
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Acute hypocalcemia
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Acute hypercalcemia
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Hyperphosphatemia
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Question 3 of 20

3. Question

Which statement regarding adrenal gland neoplasia is FALSE?

Pheochromocytoma causes an increase in catecholamine release.
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Neurofibromatosis and von Hippel-Lindau disease are related to neuroblastoma.
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The N-myc gene is found mutated in neuroblastoma.
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Metastatic spread to the liver is a sequela of neuroblastoma
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The symptoms of pheochromocytoma include paroxysmal HTN and hyperglycemia.
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Question 4 of 20

4. Question

Which endogenous pigment is formed via auto-oxidation, accumulates in Kupffer cells, and is indicative of hepatocellular injury?

Ceroid
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Lipofuscin
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Hemosiderin
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Melanin
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Bilirubin
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Question 5 of 20

5. Question

Each of the following statements are true regarding innate and acquired immune defense EXCEPT:

Acquired immunity includes cell- and antibody-mediated defense.
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Innate immunity exhibits immunological memory.
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Active and passive defense are ways to classify acquired immunity.
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Lysozymes are an example of innate immunity.
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B lymphocytes are an example of acquired immunity.
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Question 6 of 20

6. Question

Each of the following is a primary or secondary cytoplasmic granule found within Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes (PMNs) EXCEPT:

Neuraminidase
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Hydrolase
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Myeloperoxidase
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Lactoferrin
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Interferon
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Question 7 of 20

7. Question

A young patient presents with multiple white lesions on the buccal mucosa (Koplik spots) and a nonpruritic maculopapular brick-red rash. Which family of viruses is the causative agent (measles/rubeola)?

Rhabdovirus
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Paramyxovirus
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Papovirus
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Reovirus
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Calicivirus
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Question 8 of 20

8. Question

Each of the following is an RNA enveloped virus EXCEPT:

Poliovirus
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Rubella virus
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Human T-cell leukemia virus
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Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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Hepatitis C virus
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Question 9 of 20

9. Question

Which of the following ADA-standardized guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis provides the correct dosage for adults allergic to penicillins?

Adult unable to take oral medication: ampicillin 2 g IM or IV 30 minutes prior to procedure.
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Children allergic to penicillins: cephalexin 50 mg/kg PO 1 hour prior to procedure.
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Adults allergic to penicillins: clindamycin 600 mg PO 1 hour prior to dental procedures.
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Adult standard prophylaxis: penicillin 2 g PO 1 hour prior to procedure.
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Children allergic to penicillin: clindamycin 20 mg/kg PO 1 hour prior to procedure.
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Question 10 of 20

10. Question

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding bacterial vaccines?

Antitoxin vaccine is a form of active immunity
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Immunity from cholera is provided via killed vaccine.
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Active immunity includes whole bacteria, capsular polysaccharides, or toxoids.
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Antitoxin vaccine contains antibodies to bacterial exotoxins.
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Passive immunity includes preformed antibody preparations which elicit immunity.
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Question 11 of 20

11. Question

Which of the following is TRUE with regard to cellular dysplasia?

It is nonmalignant cellular growth that cannot become malignant.
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It involves atypical cells with invasion of the basement membrane.
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It is characterized by disorganized, structureless maturation and spatial arrangement of atypical cells without invasion.
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It is irreversible cellular injury.
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The cells display decreased pleomorphism and decreased mitosis.
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Question 12 of 20

12. Question

Each of the tumor markers are correctly matched to their associated cancer EXCEPT:

CEA—adenocarcinoma.
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LSA—lymphomas.
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AFP—neuroblastoma.
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hCG—choriocarcinoma
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Desmin—rhabdomyosarcoma.
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Question 13 of 20

13. Question

A 35-year-old male taking excessive NSAIDs develops extreme peritoneal pain and noted hematemesis a few days ago. Which illness should be suspected, characterized by erosion of the stomach or duodenal lining?

Peptic ulcer disease
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Duodenal ulcers
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Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
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Hiatal hernia
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Inflammatory bowel disease
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Question 14 of 20

14. Question

Which chronic condition is caused by acid reflux due to back-flow from the stomach into the esophagus, often related to a weak lower esophageal sphincter (LES), and can lead to Barrett esophagus if untreated?

Achalasia
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Mallory-Weiss syndrome
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Hiatal hernia
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Intestinal lymphangiectasia
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Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
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Question 15 of 20

15. Question

Each of the following is characteristic of basal cell carcinoma (BCC) EXCEPT:

It is locally aggressive.
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It is malignant.
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It is the most common form of skin cancer.
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It appears clinically as a pearly papule.
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It is the most common form of cancer in the United States.
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Question 16 of 20

16. Question

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the diagnosis and treatment of basal cell carcinoma (BCC)?

Because it is not malignant, the stage of treatment is not vital.
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It rarely metastasizes.
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It is not disfiguring when left alone.
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Histologically, it presents as neoplastic epidermoid cells.
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Surgical excision is rarely effective in early stages.
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Question 17 of 20

17. Question

A 9-year-old male patient presents with sneezing, chest tightness, and wheezing. Given his age and symptoms, what is the most likely suspected illness?

Chronic bronchitis
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Emphysema
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Asthma
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Asbestosis
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Anthracosis
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Question 18 of 20

18. Question

Each of the following is true regarding chronic bronchitis EXCEPT:

It is caused by mucous hypersecretion in the bronchi and smaller airways.
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Symptoms include a productive cough and wheezing.
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There is a decreased Reid index.
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You would expect to find an increased $\text{PO}_2$.
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They are known as “blue bloaters.”
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Question 19 of 20

19. Question

Aortic dissection is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Rupture can cause pericardial tamponade.
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The carotid artery may become occluded, leading to stroke.
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It can be life threatening.
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Blood “dissects” between the intima and adventitia of the aorta.
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The mitral valve often becomes damaged.
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Question 20 of 20

20. Question

A pregnant woman (22 weeks) with a history of diabetes suddenly develops blood pressure readings of $144/92$. Which of the following complications would you be concerned about?

Malignant hypertension.
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Aortic aneurysm
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Primary hypertension
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Preeclampsia
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Cardiac tamponade.
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Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 9

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