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Biomedical Sciences

Anatomic Science Quiz 1

Anatomic Science Quiz 2

Anatomic Science Quiz 3

Anatomic Science Quiz 4

Anatomic Science Quiz 5

Anatomic Science Quiz 6

Anatomic Science Quiz 7

Anatomic Science Quiz 8

Anatomic Science Quiz 9

Anatomic Science Quiz 10

Anatomic Science Quiz 11

Anatomic Science Quiz 12

Anatomic Science Quiz 13

Anatomic Science Quiz 14

Anatomic Science Quiz 15

Anatomic Science Quiz 16

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 1

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 2

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 3

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 4

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 5

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 6

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 7

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 8

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 9

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 10

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 11

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 12

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 13

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 14

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 15

Biochemistry and Physiology Quiz 16

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 1

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 2

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 3

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 4

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 5

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 6

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 7

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 8

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 9

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 10

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 11

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 12

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 13

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 14

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 15

Dental Anatomy and Occlusion Quiz 16

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 1

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 2

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 3

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 4

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 5

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 6

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 7

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 8

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 9

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 10

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 11

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 12

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 13

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 14

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 15

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 16

Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 16

Biomedical Sciences
Microbiology and Pathology Quiz 16

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Question 1 of 18

1. Question

The radiosensitivity of cells is based on their rate of proliferation. Which of the following cell types has the lowest radiosensitivity?

Lymphocytes
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Reproductive cells
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Nerve cells
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Epithelial cells
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Bone marrow
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Question 2 of 18

2. Question

Which highly malignant cerebellar tumor of primitive neuroectodermal origin occurs specifically in children?

Glioblastoma multiforme
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Medulloblastoma
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Low-grade astrocytoma
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Craniopharyngioma
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Ependymoma
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Question 3 of 18

3. Question

Which cancer has the highest incidence rate in men?

Colorectal
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Urinary tract
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Prostate
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Lung
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Leukemia
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Question 4 of 18

4. Question

A 64-year-old male presents with a painful, non-healing growth on his midface that is pearly with overlying telangiectatic vessels and sometimes bleeds. Which lesion is suspected?

Dermatofibroma
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Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)
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Squamous cell carcinoma
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Actinic keratosis
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Melanoma
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Question 5 of 18

5. Question

Which of the following skin neoplasms is classified as benign?

Pigmented nevus
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Squamous cell carcinoma
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Melanoma
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Keratocanthoma
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None of the above
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Question 6 of 18

6. Question

Each of the following is true regarding squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin EXCEPT:

Keratin pearls are seen histologically.
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There are increased laminin receptors seen in malignant epithelial cells.
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A normal treatment regimen requires chemotherapy.
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It can be caused by sun damage and radiation.
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It typically presents as a scaling, indurated, ulcerative nodule.
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Question 7 of 18

7. Question

Which of the following is FALSE regarding melanoma of the skin?

It is a malignancy of melanocytes or nevus cells.
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The most common form is superficial spreading type.
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It is the most deadly form of skin cancer.
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The clinical course may include very rapid spread.
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The initial phase of growth is vertical followed by radial.
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Question 8 of 18

8. Question

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Ewing sarcoma?

Histology alone is not specific for diagnosis.
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It is not sensitive to radiation therapy.
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It occurs in the 5th-6th decades of life.
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It originates in skeletal muscle.
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It is benign.
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Question 9 of 18

9. Question

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a life-threatening condition involving uncontrolled cyclic bleeding and clotting. Each of the following is a possible cause of DIC EXCEPT:

Major trauma.
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Malignancy.
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Gram-negative sepsis
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Amniotic fluid embolism.
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Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
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Question 10 of 18

10. Question

Which of the following is FALSE regarding iron deficiency?

It can be caused by chronic blood loss.
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Clinical symptoms include pallor, fatigue, and shortness of breath.
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It results in macrocytic anemia.
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It can lead to Plummer-Vinson syndrome.
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Poor diet can be a cause.
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Question 11 of 18

11. Question

Each of the following conditions can cause vitamin B12 deficiency (resulting in megaloblastic anemia) EXCEPT:

Pernicious anemia (decreased intrinsic factor).
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Duodenal resection.
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Gastric resection.
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Specific dietary deficiency (e.g., in strict vegetarians).
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None of the above (meaning all listed can cause it).
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Question 12 of 18

12. Question

Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder due to increased glomerular capillary permeability. Which of the following laboratory findings would be seen with nephrotic syndrome?

Hyperalbuminemia
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Hypolipidemia
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Hypocholesterolemia
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Optimally functioning renal glomeruli
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Pr oteinuria
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Question 13 of 18

13. Question

In general, which statement is TRUE regarding the systemic leukocytosis response to infection based on the offending organism?

Giardia infections are largely associated with neutrophilia.
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Rubella infections are largely associated with lymphocytosis.
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Systemic infection rarely results in fever.
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Leukocytosis is a rare result of infection.
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Clostridium infections are largely associated with eosinophilia.
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Question 14 of 18

14. Question

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the physiology of tissue edema (abnormal fluid accumulation in interstitial spaces)?

There is a decrease in capillary permeability.
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There is an increase in interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure.
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There is a decrease in plasma colloid osmotic pressure.
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There is a decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure.
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Fluid moves into the intravascular space.
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Question 15 of 18

15. Question

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathophysiology of shock (a condition due to decreased tissue perfusion)?

There is a decrease in urinary output.
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The patient becomes hypertensive.
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There is an increase in blood flow.
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There is an increase in cardiac output.
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There is an increase in stroke volume.
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Question 16 of 18

16. Question

Cirrhosis is the most common chronic liver disease, characterized by scarring, loss of architecture, and formation of regenerative nodules. Each of the following conditions can lead to cirrhosis of the liver EXCEPT:

Hemochromatosis
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Biliary obstruction.
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Wilson disease.
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Viral hepatitis
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Portal hypertension.
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Question 17 of 18

17. Question

Each of the following is true of hemolytic anemia (decreased red blood cell life span and increased destruction) EXCEPT:

The first clinical sign is yellow sclera (jaundice).
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Hyperbilirubinemia is a common laboratory finding.
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There is a decrease in unconjugated bilirubin in the blood.
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Conjugated bilirubin forms from albumin and unconjugated bilirubin.
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Hemoglobinuria is a common laboratory finding.
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Question 18 of 18

18. Question

Which of the following is TRUE of sickle cell anemia?

The homozygotic form is less severe
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The spleen is rarely affected.
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Caucasians are most commonly affected.
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It is an inherited autosomal dominant disease.
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Patients with sickle-cell trait are heterozygotic.
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